Hello. Would a fasting reading normally in 13 – 15 mmol/L be consistent with a type 1 form of diabetes, or would it be higher?
My reason for asking is that I was diagnosed as type 2 several years ago and put on Metformin, Gliclaizde, and told I should test my fasting glucose twice a day. Other than the occasional hypo everything was good, I ended up with an HbA1c usually round 6%. But in the past few months now my fasting readings have usually been in the above range.
Unfortunately my G.P. has not been responding to my requests for help, and I am currently unable to go elsewhere as I am immunosuppressed so have to shield. Instead I tried adjusting my Gliclazide myself, but going from 80mg to the maximum dose of 320mg has made no difference to my readings. They are still in the same range as before. Advice elsewhere suggests I may have LADA, especially as I have other autoimmune conditions.
I did not have any diabetic symptoms when originally diagnosed, it was discovered by chance when having blood tests, and I do not really have any now. No weight loss to suggest DKA. The only changes I have noticed are tiredness, but I have not been sleeping too well which I put down to stress, and periods of general itchiness . From what I have read hyperglycaemia only causes that in the genital area, or it can be caused by neuropathy. But I have no loss of sensation and it only lasts a few days before going away for a while.
So I am wondering whether such a diagnosis would be consistent with my current levels? What should I ask my G.P. to do, just tests or a referral to an endocrinologist? I would definitely be more comfortable with a specialist, but I am not sure whether I would warrant that.
And is it safe to wait until June, when the twelve-week isolation is up, before doing anything given the coronavirus infection risk? Especially if I have to travel to see anyone as I do not drive. Not that I may have any choice if my G.P. will not help, as the N.H.S. has suspended investigating any complaints until at least the end of June.
My reason for asking is that I was diagnosed as type 2 several years ago and put on Metformin, Gliclaizde, and told I should test my fasting glucose twice a day. Other than the occasional hypo everything was good, I ended up with an HbA1c usually round 6%. But in the past few months now my fasting readings have usually been in the above range.
Unfortunately my G.P. has not been responding to my requests for help, and I am currently unable to go elsewhere as I am immunosuppressed so have to shield. Instead I tried adjusting my Gliclazide myself, but going from 80mg to the maximum dose of 320mg has made no difference to my readings. They are still in the same range as before. Advice elsewhere suggests I may have LADA, especially as I have other autoimmune conditions.
I did not have any diabetic symptoms when originally diagnosed, it was discovered by chance when having blood tests, and I do not really have any now. No weight loss to suggest DKA. The only changes I have noticed are tiredness, but I have not been sleeping too well which I put down to stress, and periods of general itchiness . From what I have read hyperglycaemia only causes that in the genital area, or it can be caused by neuropathy. But I have no loss of sensation and it only lasts a few days before going away for a while.
So I am wondering whether such a diagnosis would be consistent with my current levels? What should I ask my G.P. to do, just tests or a referral to an endocrinologist? I would definitely be more comfortable with a specialist, but I am not sure whether I would warrant that.
And is it safe to wait until June, when the twelve-week isolation is up, before doing anything given the coronavirus infection risk? Especially if I have to travel to see anyone as I do not drive. Not that I may have any choice if my G.P. will not help, as the N.H.S. has suspended investigating any complaints until at least the end of June.