MikeyBikey
Well-Known Member
- Relationship to Diabetes
- Type 1
A few weeks ago I saw a consultant and he concluded I have no sensation from midway between the knee and ankle downwards. In the same week I had a podiatry visit and the podiatrist said I had, like many long term or poorly controlled diabetics, reduced sensation. I agree with the podiatrist but not the consultant. He however has written to my GP saying I have no sensation. Do you think I should contact my GP contradicting this or will it be seen as nit picking?