ANeutralName
Member
Hi!
First off, an apology.
I have to point out that, according to my doctor, I'm not diabetic.
I apologise because I reckon someone in my situation (worried and confused, but possibly not actually diabetic) might be a bit annoying to anyone who undeniably has the condition and is struggling with definite symptoms.
The thing is that I am certainly at high-risk of diabetes, as even my GP agrees (have many risk factors, including a family history of it). And I seem to have multiple symptoms that I don't at the moment have any other explanation for. But they might be something else entirely.
My GP says I don't have it. But that is purely on the basis of an A1c result of 5.7. Which he says means I don't have it, and am perfectly fine, by definition (as, apparently, its now _defined_ by the a1c test score, which, I gather, is itself a change). Though I note that if I were in the US that would constitute pre-diabetes so its not that good a result, it seems to me, no matter what the GP says.
I want to ask a lot of questions, but will try and stick to the main one...
What I most have difficulty with making sense of, is that it seems, from reading, its possible for people who _do_ have diabetes to get their measured blood glucose levels down by means of being extremely careful about exercise and diet. I have heard a few people claim this as a 'cure', but I'm guessing that its more a case of it just being well-managed and under control but still there?
But does that not undermine the whole basis of diagnosis (and definition) via the A1c test? What's the difference, from the point-of-view of the A1c test, between not having diabetes, and having diabetes that you are currently, or at least for the last few months the test covers, controlling well by means of diet and exercise?
Because in recent years I've been extremely physically-active and had a pretty good diet. But some of my symptoms pre-date that, going back to when I was much, much less physically active (and very overweight). Essentially l had chronic fatigue for many years and so put on lots of weight, then it went away and I went quite mad on exercise for many years and lost it all again. But recently, I seem to have developed some new problems, including a frozen shoulder that really crippled me for many months, and a horribly, chronically, dry mouth and eyes.
What I struggle to understand is how can the GP be so certain the test result means I don't have the condition, rather than having it but just that its been well-controlled lately?
I just don't get how the A1c test can be a definitive diagnostic test when it can be affected by current diet and activity levels.
(Again, apologies if I'm worrying about nothing and shouldn't even be on this forum,but I really couldn't get any sense out of my GP about the topic - his attitude was just to repeatedly invoke the test result and basically say "computer says no, now go away". But I am still a bit worried, especially as I have symptoms and I'm the same age my dad was when he developed it).
First off, an apology.
I have to point out that, according to my doctor, I'm not diabetic.
I apologise because I reckon someone in my situation (worried and confused, but possibly not actually diabetic) might be a bit annoying to anyone who undeniably has the condition and is struggling with definite symptoms.
The thing is that I am certainly at high-risk of diabetes, as even my GP agrees (have many risk factors, including a family history of it). And I seem to have multiple symptoms that I don't at the moment have any other explanation for. But they might be something else entirely.
My GP says I don't have it. But that is purely on the basis of an A1c result of 5.7. Which he says means I don't have it, and am perfectly fine, by definition (as, apparently, its now _defined_ by the a1c test score, which, I gather, is itself a change). Though I note that if I were in the US that would constitute pre-diabetes so its not that good a result, it seems to me, no matter what the GP says.
I want to ask a lot of questions, but will try and stick to the main one...
What I most have difficulty with making sense of, is that it seems, from reading, its possible for people who _do_ have diabetes to get their measured blood glucose levels down by means of being extremely careful about exercise and diet. I have heard a few people claim this as a 'cure', but I'm guessing that its more a case of it just being well-managed and under control but still there?
But does that not undermine the whole basis of diagnosis (and definition) via the A1c test? What's the difference, from the point-of-view of the A1c test, between not having diabetes, and having diabetes that you are currently, or at least for the last few months the test covers, controlling well by means of diet and exercise?
Because in recent years I've been extremely physically-active and had a pretty good diet. But some of my symptoms pre-date that, going back to when I was much, much less physically active (and very overweight). Essentially l had chronic fatigue for many years and so put on lots of weight, then it went away and I went quite mad on exercise for many years and lost it all again. But recently, I seem to have developed some new problems, including a frozen shoulder that really crippled me for many months, and a horribly, chronically, dry mouth and eyes.
What I struggle to understand is how can the GP be so certain the test result means I don't have the condition, rather than having it but just that its been well-controlled lately?
I just don't get how the A1c test can be a definitive diagnostic test when it can be affected by current diet and activity levels.
(Again, apologies if I'm worrying about nothing and shouldn't even be on this forum,but I really couldn't get any sense out of my GP about the topic - his attitude was just to repeatedly invoke the test result and basically say "computer says no, now go away". But I am still a bit worried, especially as I have symptoms and I'm the same age my dad was when he developed it).